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Author: Subject: brain teaser: paper mill problem
Magpie
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[*] posted on 7-3-2016 at 16:11
brain teaser: paper mill problem


Paper coming off a paper machine is wound into a roll on a cardboard core of 10cm diameter. The paper caliper (thickness) is 0.15mm. What diameter roll of paper is needed to contain 4000 lineal meters?



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[*] posted on 7-3-2016 at 16:24


Quote: Originally posted by Magpie  
lineal meters?


You mean SI meters?




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Fulmen
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[*] posted on 7-3-2016 at 16:36


Volume core: pi * 0,05^2 = 0,00785m^2
Volume paper: 4000m * 0,15mm = 0,6m^2
Diameter roll: 2* root (0,60785/pi) = 0,880m

Edit: Calculation error in second step.
Editedit: Corrected my previous correction.

[Edited on 8-3-16 by Fulmen]




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[*] posted on 7-3-2016 at 16:43


I'm getting 0.335 m.

Reasoning to follow.



[Edited on 8-3-2016 by blogfast25]




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[*] posted on 7-3-2016 at 17:02


Quote: Originally posted by Fulmen  
Volume core: pi * 0,05^2 = 0,00785m^2
Volume paper: 4000m * 0,15mm = 0,06m^2
Diameter roll: 2* root (0,06785/pi) = 0,880m

Edit: Calculation error in last step.

[Edited on 8-3-16 by Fulmen]


Fulmen, did you slip a decimal point in the area of the paper, ie, should it be 0.6m^2.

-------------------------------------

Somehow, magically, Fulmen did get the right answer even with the slipped decimal.

Blogfast, I think you and I may have overthought this problem. The solution is very straightforward as shown by Fulmen.

[Edited on 8-3-2016 by Magpie]




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[*] posted on 7-3-2016 at 17:19


I get 49.8 cm radius, so 98.4 cm diameter.



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[*] posted on 7-3-2016 at 17:19


Quote: Originally posted by Magpie  

Blogfast, I think you and I may have overthought this problem. The solution is very straightforward as shown by Fulmen.



I don't see how it can be done that way.

My reasoning:

Radius for n winds:

$$R_n=R_0+n\tau$$

with $$\tau=0.15\:\mathrm{mm}, R_0=0.05\:\mathrm{m}$$

Length of n th wind:

$$L_n=2\pi(R_0+n\tau)$$

Total length of n winds:

$$L=\Sigma_0^n[2\pi(R_0+n\tau)]$$

$$L=\frac{\pi}{\tau}\big[(R_0+n\tau)^2-R_0^2\big]$$

Reworked:

$$\pi\tau n^2+2\pi R_0n-L=0$$

$$L=4000\:\mathrm{m}$$

The positive root is:

$$n=2600$$

$$R_{2600}=0.5+0.00015 \times 2600=0.44\mathrm{m}$$

or a diameter of 0.88 m.

Need to run some checks now...

[Edited on 8-3-2016 by blogfast25]

[Edited on 8-3-2016 by blogfast25]




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[*] posted on 7-3-2016 at 17:26


Quote: Originally posted by Magpie  

Somehow, magically, Fulmen did get the right answer even with the slipped decimal.

LOL. It's 2AM and I'm a bit tired. The miscalculation was in the second step, not the last.




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[*] posted on 7-3-2016 at 17:32


Quote: Originally posted by Fulmen  
Quote: Originally posted by Magpie  

Somehow, magically, Fulmen did get the right answer even with the slipped decimal.

LOL. It's 2AM and I'm a bit tired. The miscalculation was in the second step, not the last.


Tired or not, your calc is correct. Congrats! :cool:




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[*] posted on 7-3-2016 at 17:34


Oh, I see where I went wrong. My reasoning was the same as Fulmen's- the cross sectional area of the paper is 4000 m x 0.15 mm, which is 6000 cm^2. Wrapped around a cylinder of radius 5 cm, this gives a total radius of 44.8 cm (to which I randomly added 5 cm for the radius of the core, although that was already taken care of).



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[*] posted on 8-3-2016 at 03:27


Well, Blogfast figured it out too, even though he went the long route. It's interesting to see how one can solve the same problem in entirely different ways, I wonder if there are more solutions to this.



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[*] posted on 8-3-2016 at 05:51


All this mathematical problem suppose that each layer of paper is fully adherent to the previous one --> no air gaps!
:D;):P

In the real world in such an event no sheet of paper could be taken away since adherence would be so strong that the roll wouldn't ne a roll anymore but be a full paper pipe ;-)




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[*] posted on 8-3-2016 at 08:25


I did it by looking at the area on the end of the roll;

0.15*4,000,000=Pi*(x^2 - 50^2)

Where x is the radius of the tube.

This rearranges to;

Sqrt((600,000/Pi) + 2500) = x = 440mm

So the diameter is 880mm

It's the same as what Fulmen did, but he was talking about volume, then calculating area :P

@Blogfast, How do you do that nice lettering with sub/superscript and fancy Greek letters?
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[*] posted on 8-3-2016 at 08:25


Quote: Originally posted by PHILOU Zrealone  
All this mathematical problem suppose that each layer of paper is fully adherent to the previous one --> no air gaps!


Yawn. It's a BRAIN TEASER!




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[*] posted on 8-3-2016 at 08:34


Quote: Originally posted by Maker  

It's the same as what Fulmen did, but he was talking about volume, then calculating area :P


*sigh*
As I've said, it as 2AM and I was barely awake. I'm not correcting my corrections to my first correction, I fear I'll only introduce more errors :-)




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[*] posted on 8-3-2016 at 10:45


Quote: Originally posted by PHILOU Zrealone  
All this mathematical problem suppose that each layer of paper is fully adherent to the previous one --> no air gaps!
:D;):P

In the real world in such an event no sheet of paper could be taken away since adherence would be so strong that the roll wouldn't ne a roll anymore but be a full paper pipe ;-)


Yes. But you might be surprised how tightly wound those paper rolls are! ;) I worked in this industry for 11 years and this is an actual problem I was presented by the Finishing Room superintendent. The Finishing Room cuts the roll into rectangular sheets according to customer specifications.

After seeing Fulmen's elegant solution I am embarrassed to show my long-winded, over-thought, solution, but here it is for your enjoyment:

Solution:
Imagine the roll to be composed of an infinite number of thin shells (hollow cylinders) of thickness dx. Let x = the distance from the center of the roll to a shell.

The circumference of each shell = 2πx. Let A = the end area of the roll in m^2. Let the end area of each shell = dA.

Then dA = 2πxdx (equation 1)

Let L = the total length of the paper in m.
Then A = 0.15L/1000


Then dA = (0.15/1000)dL (equation 2)

Note: This "dA" is different than the one in equation 1 above but their integrals will be the same, ie, $$\int dA=A$$ in each case.

Equating equations 1 and 2 to eliminate $$\int dA$$

$$\int\frac {0.15}{1000}dL=\int 2πxdx$$

Let α =2π/(0.15/1000) = 41,888

Ie, the integral of dL = the integral of αxdx.

Integrating both sides to indefinite integrals

L = (αx^2)/2 + C (C is a constant of integration)

For the definite integrals:

L (0 to 4000) = (αx^2)/2 (0.05 to D/2)

4000 = (41,888/2)[(D/2)^2 – (0.05)^2] = 20,944[(D/2)^2 – 0.0025]

[(D/2)^2 – 0.0025] = 4000/20,944 = 0.1910

(D/2)^2 = 0.1885

D/2 = 0.4341; D = 0.868 m

@blogfast: Doing the above integral sign equations using LaTex just about drove me nuts! :P

Curious to see how well this method would work in a similar application I measured the ID and OD of a new roll of Scotch 33+ electrical tape. The package provided the thickness (0.177mm) and length (15.85m). Thank you 3M! My result was L = 15.7m. Not bad.


[Edited on 8-3-2016 by Magpie]




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[*] posted on 8-3-2016 at 11:28


Quote: Originally posted by Magpie  


@blogfast: Doing the above integral sign equations using LaTex just about drove me nuts! :P

Curious to see how well this method would work in a similar application I measured the ID and OD of a new roll of Scotch 33+ electrical tape. The package provided the thickness (0.177mm) and length (15.85m). Thank you 3M! My result was L = 15.7m. Not bad.




Nice! So that's basically a third way...:cool:

Remember you can steal someone else's Latex, then modify it. Right click on any LaTex rendered formula and choose 'Latex'. A window opens that shows the 'code'. Cut 'n paste and modify to your heart's delight.

Most LaTex functions, here:

https://en.wikibooks.org/wiki/LaTeX/Mathematics

Proof reading? Go: https://www.mathjax.org/ and choose 'Live demo'. Cut and paste your roughs in there to see how it renders.


[Edited on 8-3-2016 by blogfast25]




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[*] posted on 13-3-2016 at 15:40


Hmmm. How about the air between the layers? Do you remove it via Vacuum and/or compression? Might be quite a bit of volume. Oh, I see the guys thought of that.

Me, I'm a weak math type of guy. I would calculate Wt/Meter, and then weigh out 4000 lineal meters worth.

Phewww. Glad I didn't try to twist my head around that one.

I'm going to reward myself with an ice-cream cone.
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